Were Joseph’s Egyptians Circumcised?

Two midrashim in Rashi seem to contradict — the resolution is that neither are necessarily meant literally.

Q. It says in Rashi (Meketz 41,55), that Pharaoh agreed to circumcise the Egyptians, while in Vayigash )55/4(, Rashi cites that Yosef shows the brothers his circumcision as a proof of him being a son of Yaakov. How is this a proof, if all Egyptians are circumcised?

The general rule that one cannot ask questions on midrashim (Rambam, Guide For the Perplexed, p. 15; Tikunei Zohar Chadach 166) is based on the fact that some, probably most, midrashim are not factual traditions but rather educational vehicles for teaching us philosophical or spiritual idea/s, or how to act properly. They are sometimes written anachronistically about our forefathers, where the real intention is to teach a needed lesson to the listeners of future generations), while only some apparently come to fill-in ancient traditions. Others may come to answer textual questions, while others may have a mystical, kabbalistic or symbolic explanation. In other words, one or maybe even both of these midrashim cited by Rashi, aren’t meant to be taken literally, and accordingly there is no significance in such apparent “contradictions”.